1. Which of the following is a colloid solution?
a. Ringers Lactate
b. Normal Saline
c. Dextran
d. All of the above
2. A known diabetic who is unconscious, pale, clammy skin, with stable
vital signs is suffering from:
a. CVA
b. acute AMI
c. diabetic coma
d. insulin shock
3. Uncompensated shock produces which of the following:
a. pre-capillary and post-capillary sphincter contraction
b. pre- capillary sphincter contraction and post-capillary sphincter
relaxation.
c. pre-capillary sphincter relaxation and post-capillary sphincter
contraction.
d. pre-capillary and post- capillary sphincter dilation
4. Kinematics of trauma; How many collisions occur?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
5. Dopamine has what effects when administered at 1-2 mcg/kg/min?
a. renal and mesenteric dilation
b. increased blood pressure
c. increased heart rate
d. decreased urine output
6. Decerebrate and decorticate posturing is an indication of:
a. seizure
b. cerebral focal cortex lesions
c. diffuse cranial injury
d. spine injury
7. The best possible score for a Glascow coma scale is:
a. eye opening 4; verbal response 5; motor response; 6
b. eye opening 3; verbal response 4; motor response; 5
c. eye opening 6; verbal response 5; motor response; 4
d. eye opening 5; verbal response 5; motor response; 5
8. The beta cells of the pancreas produce:
a. thyroxin hormone
b. ACTH
c. insulin hormone
d. anti-diuretic hormone
9. The most significant sign of abdominal injury is:
a. tenderness
b. rigidity & guarding
c. pain
d. hematuria
10. Lidocaine is usually given for:
a. ventricular tachycardia
b. atrial fibrillation
c. supraventricular tachycardia
d. asystole
11. Before applying a PASG you must:
a. insert an oral airway
b. assess lung sounds
c. measure the legs of the patient
d. start an IV
12. Patient has high blood pressure in pregnancy:
a. preeclampsia
b. eclampsia
c. toxemia
d. uterine inversion
13. Anaphylaxsis following an insect sting is treated with:
a. morphine sulfate
b. epinephrine
c. aminophylline
d. benadryl
14. What device transmits specific tones that other receivers will
recognize?
a. repeater
b. encoder
c. modulator
d. transponder
15. Who has the ultimate authority over the paramedic in the field?
a. standing orders
b. protocols
c. on-line medical control
d. scene physician
16. A deviation from the accepted standards of care is called:
a. abandonment
b. negligence
c. incompetence
d. malpractice
17. Which of the following is not a method of transmission of the
Hepatitis virus?
a. blood
b. feces
c. saliva
d. sexual contact
18. An overdose of Oil of Wintergreen will present similar to:
a. tricyclic antidepressants
b. salicylates
c. amphetamines
d. opiate derivatives
19. Aminophylline is given:
a. IV push rapidly
b. IV over 20-30 minutes
c. IV over 8-10 minutes
d. IV push slowly
20. You have been called to a party for a 20 year old male who bystanders
state had a seizure activity before you arrived. The patient is con-
scious and agitated, BP 132/96, pulse 132, resp. 28. He is dia-
phoretic and his pupils are dilated. He denies any drug or alcohol
ingestion. What do you suspect?
a. grand mal seizure
b. delirium tremens
c. cocaine
d. heroin
21. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor to hypothermia?
a. diabetes
b. old age
c. AMI
d. alcoholism
22. Ions that carry a negative charge are:
a. cations
b. anions
c. electrolytes
d. megahertz
23. Verapamil has what effects on the myocardium?
a. negative chronotropic
b. positive inotropic
c. negative inotropic
d. positive chronotropic
24. What is the chief extracellular electrolyte?
a. sodium
b. potassium
c. hydrogen
d. calcium
25. The normal PR interval is _____ seconds
a. 0.2-0.4
b. 0.4-0.12
c. 0.1-0.20
d. 0.12-0.20
26. The paramedic's best defense in the event of legal proceedings is:
a. a detailed medical record
b. professional liability insurance
c. a lawyer
d. the medical director
27. A paramedic in Missouri must complete relicensure requirements every:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
28. The range of a portable radio transmitter/receiver is somewhat
limited. The range can be extended by the use of a(n):
a. base station
b. repeater
c. amplifier
d. telephone
29. The first action a paramedic takes after receiving a medication order
over the radio is to:
a. immediately administer the medication
b. repeat the patients vital signs
c. start an IV infusion
d. repeat the medication order
30. Which of the following is a re-entry rhythm?
a. sinus tachycardia
b. junctional rhythm
c. atrial tachycardia
d. idioventricular
31. If a patients apical pulse is 130, and their radial pulse rate is 96,
what is this referred to?
a. pulse difference
b. pulse deficit
c. pulsis paradoxis
d. circulatory gap
32. The presence of S3 heart sounds is associated with:
a. bundle branch block
b. congestive heart failure
c. cardiac tamponade
d. aortic aneurysm
33. The S1 heart sound is caused by closure of the:
a. atrioventricular valves
b. mitral valve & pulmonic valve
c. tricuspid valve & aortic valve
d. semilunar valves
34. A patient who is hyperventilating may have which acid-base condition?
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
35. If a radial pulse is present, systolic blood pressure is at least:
a. 100
b. 80
c. 70
d. 60
36. What heart valve prevents the backflow of blood into the right atrium?
a. mitral valve
b. tricuspid valve
c. bicuspid valve
d. aortic valve
37. What is pH?
a. the oxygen saturation
b. the hemoglobin level
c. the hydrogen ion concentration
d. the phosphorus level
38. Which is the correct area for decompression of a tension pneumothorax?
a. 3rd intercostal space, mid-axillary line
b. 2nd intercostal space, mid-axillary line
c. 4th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
d. 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
39. Airway obstruction can be caused by:
a. lateral extension
b. dorsal flexion
c. ventral flexion
d. ventral extension
40. Which aspect of the physical exam is least helpful in the field?
a. pupillary response
b. deep tendon reflex
c. movement of extremities
d. ability to follow simple commands
41. Which of the following is the earliest sign of shock?
a. hypotension
b. cyanosis
c. cold clammy skin
d. restlessness
42. A possible complication of the PASG is:
a. reduced venous return to the heart
b. gastric dilatation
c. decreased ventilation
d. increased bleeding under the suit
43. The joint action of two drugs where the combined effect is greater
than the sum of their individual effect is called:
a. antagonism
b. potentiation
c. synergism
d. idiosycrasy
44. What is the action of insulin?
a. stimulates alpha receptors
b. produces glucagon
c. transfers glucose into cells
d. produces hemolysis of RBCs
45. The physician orders 5mcg/kg/min of dopamine for an 80 kg patient.
You put 400mg of Dopamine in 250mls D5W. What is the correct rate
using microdrip tubing?
a. 15 gtts/min
b. 30 gtts/min
c. 40 gtts/min
d. 120 gtts/min
46. Which drug must be given cautiously to patients currently taking
Digitalis?
a. CaCl
b. D50
c. diazepam
d. epinephrine
47. Which drug is contraindicated in asthma patients?
a. digitalis
b. CaCl
c. Inderal
d. epinephrine
48. The APGAR score evaluates:
a. pulse, respirations, BP, activity, color
b. pulse, respirations, activity, color, grimace
c. pulse, reflex ability, appearance, BP
d. BP, pulse, gestation, color, respiration
49. The signs of epiglottitis are:
a. aphasia and fever
b. fever and chills
c. dysphagia and drooling
d. rales and dyspnea
50. A patient has an IV established and suddenly goes into V-fib.
You will:
a. give lidocaine immediately
b. defibrillate
c. synchronized cardiovert
d. begin CPR
51. A 30 y/o unconscious black female has an obstructed airway unrelieved
by abdominal thrusts. The next therapy would be:
a. direct laryngoscopy
b. attempt to ventilate
c. positive pressure ventilation
d. cricothyrotomy
52. Painful bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy is most likely:
a. PID
b. placenta previa
c. abruptio placenta
d. mittleschmertz
53. Bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy without pain is most
likely:
a. spontaneous abortion
b. placenta previa
c. abruptio placenta
d. prolapsed cord
54. While administering 6 liters of O2 to a COPD patient, the patient
suddenly becomes apneic. You should:
a. begin assisting ventilations with a BVM
b. immediately intubate the patient
c. discontinue the O2 therapy
d. increase the O2 flow
55. A 35 y/o woman on bedrest got up and suddenly developed chest pain
and severe dyspnea. Her lung sounds are clear and equal. What do you
suspect?
a. pulmonary embolism
b. acute MI
c. pneumonia
d. spontaneous pneumothorax
56. Which drug is used as both an anti-arrythmic and an anti-convulsant?
a. lidocaine
b. phenytoin
c. physostigmine
d. diazepam
57. A radio's squelch should be adjusted:
a. monthly
b. before each transmission
c. every time the radio is turned on
d. when it is first installed
58. In a COPD patient the respiratory drive is triggered by?
a. hypocarbia
b. hypercarbia
c. hypoxia
d. hypovolemia
59. The waste product of anaerobic metabolism is:
a. CO2 & H2O
b. HCO3
c. lactic acid
d. acetylcholine
60. What hormone is secreted by the female posterior pituitary gland and
causes lactation and the contraction of the uterine smooth muscle?
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. oxytocin
d. evesterone
61. A normal, head first delivery is termed:
a. breech
b. transverse
c. cephalic
d. caudal
62. A heat exhaustion patient is suffering from what type of shock?
a. metabolic
b. hypovolemic
c. cardiogenic
d. neurogenic
63. Which of the following solutions is hypotonic?
a. D5W
b. 0.9% NSS
c. 045% NSS
d. D50W
64. Which of the following is NOT an endpoint to the administration of
procainamide?
a. hypotension develops
b. QRS narrows by more than 50%
c. the dysrhythmia is suppressed
d. 1 gm has been administered
65. Which drug is a parasympathetic antagonist?
a. lidocaine
b. digoxin
c. atropine
d. dopamine
66. The paramedic should know that the administration of nitrous oxide?
a. causes a decrease in intracranial pressure
b. should be self administered by the patient only
c. should not be used in trauma patients
d. should not be used if patient has a suspected AMI
67. A patient receiving a unit of blood begins complaining of lower back pain
substernal chest pain, dyspnea and a headache. What do you suspect?
a. anaphylactic reaction
b. hemolytic reaction
c. pyrogenic reaction
d. dehydration
68. Where is the femoral artery in relation to the inguinal ligament?
a. posterior
b. anterior
c. medial
d. lateral
69. Who would most likely suffer a painless, silent MI?
a. drug abusers
b. alcoholics
c. diabetics
d. elderly people
70. A 30 y/o pregnant patient is suffering from seizures. You have treated
her with 5mg Valium IV push. You would give what drug next?
a. 2-4 gms 10% solution of magnesium sulfate IV push
b. 1 mg magnesium sulfate IM
c. 2-4 mg 20% solution of magnesium sulfate IV push
d. 250 mg dilantin at 25 mg/min
71. Normal tidal volume of the lungs of an adult is:
a. 100 mls
b. 200 mls
c. 500 mls
d. 800 mls
72. Which is not a symptom of anaphylaxsis?
a. urticaria
b. respiratory distress
c. stomach cramps
d. bradycardia
73. Which defines the relative refractory period:
a. when a stimulus may occur during repolarization
b. when no stimulus may occur during repolarization
c. when a stimulus may occur during depolariztion
d. when no stimulus may occur during depolariztion
74. What is crack?
a. a CNS depressant
b. a CNS stimulant
c. muscle relaxant
d. opiate derivative
75. The effective action of adrenalin is:
a. sympathetic
b. parasympathetic
c. cholinergic
d. antagonistic
76. A drug with predominantly alpha effects will cause:
a. vasoconstriction
b. vasodilation
c. bronchodilation
d. none of the above
77. Catecholamines are:
a. sympathomimetic
b. parasympathetic
c. cholinergic
d. none of the above
78. Ecchymosis over the mastoid bone is called:
a. Cheyne stokes sign
b. hemoptysis
c. Battle's sign
d. quadriplegia
79. Which injuries have the lowest priority in the field?
a. respiratory burns & abdominal trauma
b. thoracic trauma & airway obstruction
c. cardiac trauma & head injury
d. spinal injury & open fractures
80. In a normal person, respiration is triggered by:
a. oxygen level
b. CO2 level
c. HCO3 level
d. CO level
81. If a rescuer inadvertently increases rate and depth while ventilating
a patient it may result in:
a. hypercarbia & respiratory alkalosis
b. hypercarbia & metabolic acidosis
c. hypocarbia & respiratory acidosis
d. hypocarbia & metabolic alkalosis
82. The physician orders 8 mcg/min if isuprell for a 70 kg patient. You
put 2 mg in 250 mls of D5W. What is the rate of microdrips?
a. 30 gtts/min
b. 60 gtts/min
c. 90 gtts/min
d. 120 gtts/min
83. Lidocaine toxicity may produce:
a. ventricular fibrillation
b. yellow vision
c. asthma
d. seizures/convulsions
84. Which valve prevents regurgitation of blood from the left ventricle
to the left atrium?
a. aortic valve
b. tricuspid valve
c. pulmonic valve
d. mitral valve
85. In lead II what are you reading?
a. +RA to -LL
b. -RA to +LA
c. -RA to +LL
d. -LA to +LL
86. In AV junctional rhythms, the P wave is inverted because:
a. the pacemaker is in the left atrium
b. atria are depolarized retrogradely
c. atria are depolarized simultaneously
d. atria are depolarized spontaneously
87. Depolariztion is the:
a. recovery of the cell
b. electrical stimulus results in defibrillation
c. electrical stimulus moves throughout the cell and results in
cardiac muscle work
d. the cell will not respond to strong stimulus
88. A diabetic with hypertension who experiences numbness of the left arm
for 30 minutes has likely had:
a. petit mal seizures
b. focal seizures
c. transient ischemic attacks
d. conversion hysteria
89. The most significant problem resulting from hypoglycemia is:
a. hunger
b. loss of consciousness
c. damage to the brain cells
d. damage to the pancreas
90. The danger of thrombophebitis is that a clot may break loose and
travel to the:
a. brain
b. lungs
c. liver
d. legs
91. Which is the correct placement of the paddles for defibrillation?
a. cardiac apex and below clavicle, right of sternum
b. cardiac apex and on sternum at Angle of Louis
c. cardiac apex and on left of sternum
d. cardiac apex and over center of sternum
92. The patient who is decorticate will move his hands and arms:
a. toward the body
b. over the head
c. extended away from the body
d. none of the above
93. A 5 y/o is leaning forward, drooling, stridorous, feverish, and has
pain on swallowing. He most likely has:
a. epiglottitis
b. croup
c. asthma
d. bronchiolitis
94. A patient who is pacing, anxious, and blaming himself may be suffering
from:
a. depression
b. conversion hysteria
c. subdued mania
d. schizophrenia
95. A woman watched her husband and son die in a domestic disturbance.
She appears paralyzed, but no injury is found. What is she likely
suffering from?
a. psychogenic shock
b. neurogenic shock
c. conversion hysteria
d. post-traumatic shock
96. Which statement is true of suicides?
a. many have a history of psychiatric illness
b. women are more successful than men
c. many suicides isolate themselves
d. most give no prior notice of what they will do
97. How much energy is used in initial defibrillation of a 70kg adult?
a. 100-200 joules
b. 200 joules
c. 300 joules
d. maximum output
98. For how long may you interrupt CPR to intubate?
a. 5 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. 45 seconds
99. A 60 y/o patient with a- fib develops signs of CVA. This is probably
due to:
a. cerebral hemorrhage
b. cerebral embolism
c. cerebral thrombosis
d. pulmonary embolism
100. R on T phenomenon may result in:
a. supraventricular tachycardia
b. ventricular fibrillation
c. premature atrial contractions
d. atrial fibrillation
101. Defibrillation of an infant requires:
a. 1 joule/kg
b. 2-4 joules/kg
c. 200 joules
d. 5 joules/kg
102. Morphine is a schedule ____ narcotic medication.
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
103. A farmer who had been spraying his crops calls EMS because he has a
sudden onset of dyspnea. On arrival you find him sitting in a chair
complaining of nausea, substernal tightness, and abdominal cramps.
He is sweating and in some respiratory distress. After placing him on
high- flow O2 and starting an IV of NSS you would next give:
a. atropine 1 mg
b. epinephrine 0.3-0.5 sub-q
c. atropine 5 mg IV push
d. atropine 2 mg IM followed by 1 mg IV push
104. Why do you hyperventilate a patient with a head injury?
a. to lower pCO2 below 40 torr
b. to lower pCO2 below 100 torr
c. to raise pCO2 above 40 mmHg
d. none of the above
105. An infant with one leg burned on both sides has what % of body
burned?
a. 18%
b. 13.5%
c. 9%
d. 12%
106. If you put 400mg of dopamine in 500 mls of D5W, how much dopamine
is there per ml?
a. 1250 mcg
b. 800 mcg
c. 1600 mcg
d. 1.25 mg
107. What is described as the movement of a substance across the cell
membrane against the osmotic gradient using energy?
a. osmosis
b. active transport
c. diffusion
d. facilitated transport
108. Procainamide administered too rapidly may cause:
a. hypertension
b. hypotension
c. narrowing of the QRS complex
d. V-tach
109. Theophylline and Theo-dur are both:
a. sympathomimetics
b. bronchodilators
c. cardiac glycocides
d. cholinergic
110. Which of the following is an emetic?
a. ipecac liquid
b. ipecac syrup
c. activated charcoal
d. atropine
111. 100 mls of 2% lidocaine contains how much lidocaine?
a. 200 mg
b. 2000 mg
c. 2000mcg
d. 20 gm
112. A 30 y/o female has just taken 100 tablets of Tylenol. What should you
administer?
a. 60 mls ipecac syrup
b. 30 mls ipecac water
c. 30 mls ipecac syrup
d. 50 gms activated charcoal
113. A widened QRS complex is a sign of:
a. slowed impulses through the atria
b. atropine overdose
c. conduction defect of the ventricles
d. wandering pacemaker
114. You have put restraints on a patient who shows signs of violence. How
do you explain this to him?
a. We put these on everyone.
b. These are to keep you from hurting yourself and others.
c. the law says we must restrain all OBS patients.
d. We like doing this!
115. To secure the airway in a trauma patient, you should:
a. place an ET tube while your partner maintains in-line immobiliza-
tion
b. place an EOA and hyperextend the neck
c. place an ET tube putting the head in a sniffing position
d. use only an oropharyngeal airway
116. What is usually true in GI bleeding?
a. never bright red in color
b. peptic ulcer is most common cause
c. duodenal ulcer is most common cause
d. never dark red in color
117. A 20 y/o male fractured his leg one week ago. He has taken aspirin for
pain. He gets up and becomes short of breath. He probably suffered
a(n)
a. acute MI
b. pulmonary embolism
c. thrombosis
d. angina attack
118. A 27 y/o male involved in a MVA is complaining of chest pain. You
would treat this patient as having a(n):
a. angina attack
b. MI
c. pulmonary embolism
d. thrombosis
119. You suspect a patient is having an MI. You base this on:
a. vital signs
b. appearance of patient
c. Hx of the acute illness
d. opinion of base hospital physician
120. Tension pneumothorax causes:
a. cardiac tamponade effect
b. lack of blood return to the atria
c. pulmonary embolism
d. thrombosis
121. In tension pneumothorax the patient has:
a. ruptured spleen
b. tracheal deviation away from affected side
c. tracheal deviation toward affected side
d. over inflation of the lung
122. Ischemia is defined as:
a. lack of oxygen to the cells
b. lack of CO2 to the cells
c. deficient blood supply
d. deficient iron supply
123. You started an IV in the external jugular. As you attach the tubing
you note blood pulse back up into the tubing. You will:
a. D/C the IV, withdraw the catheter and apply pressure for 5 minutes
b. Tape the IV in place, clamp the tubing and start another
c. slow the IV to KVO rate
d. attach a blood filter
124. Principles of restraining patients include all of the following EXCEPT
a. have adequate numbers of people
b. restrain all extremities
c. restrain as a last resort
d. free the restraints after the patient displays rational behavior
125. You put 1 gm of lidocaine in 250 mls of D5W. You are told to
administer 2mg/min. How many gtts/min is this?
a. 15 gtts
b. 30 gtts
c. 45 gtts
d. 60 gtts
126. By what process does a solute move through a semi-permiable
membrane?
a. osmosis
b. diffusion
c. activity
d. magic
127. What do you call a coarse rub or bark on expiration?
a. rales
b. rhonchi
c. wheezes
d. croup
128. The effective action of acetylcholine is:
a. sympathetic
b. parasympathetic
c. antagonistic
d. adrenergic
129. A drug with beta effects will cause:
a. vasoconstriction
b. bronchoconstriction
c. increased heart rate
d. none of the above
130. Which area reflects the central venous pressure?
a. right atrium
b. aorta
c. radial artery
d. pulmonary artery
131. Hypovolemic shock produces:
a. increased preload
b. decreased preload
c. increased afterload
d. increased CVP
132. How do you know your treatment for shock is effective?
a. return of spontaneous ventilation
b. cyanosis is gone
c. blood pressure rises
d. 2 liters of fluid has been given
133. What would you not use in neonatal resuscitation?
a. high flow O2 by demand valve
b. epinephrine
c. CPR
d. endotracheal intubation
134. Initial therapy for a child with a high fever,drooling,and anxiety is:
a. direct laryngoscopy
b. humidified O2 by mask
c. prepare for intubation
d. administer racemic epinephrine
135. You are treating a 35 y/o male who was the driver in a MVA. He is
complaining of chest pain and shows steering wheel imprints on the
chest. Lung sounds are equal bilaterally. Patient is hypertensive but
has bilateral decreased femoral pulses. Which is the most likely
Diagnosis?
a. rib fractures
b. dissected aorta
c. tension pneumothorax
d. fractured sternum
136. A person who acts in a less developed form of behavior is
demonstrating:
a. paranoia
b. regression
c. agoraphobia
d. Dan Laws
137. You respond to find an unconscious 69 y/o male on the bathroom floor.
During your exam the patient awakens and tells you he was attempting
to move his bowels. His most likely difficulty is:
a. vertigo
b. vasovagal response
c. cardiac syncope
d. postural syncope
138. You have an unconscious patient who was complaining if chest pain
prior to collapse. BP is 88/45, pulse 46, and respirations 12. The
patient is likely suffering from:
a. an AMI
b. anaphylaxsis
c. cardiogenic shock
d. CVA
139. Which is a common reason in having to treat a diabetic:
a. medication noncompliance
b. lack of knowledge about insulin
c. hidrosis
d. hirsutism
140. The difficulty in transmission of radio waves is related to the fact
that radio waves:
a. go through dense foliage
b. are reflected by metal objects
c. are scattered by irregular metal objects
d. are absorbed by the ground
141. Which of the following is the best definition to "phobia":
a. tortured as a child
b. a normal fear
c. great fear of wide open spaces
d. an unrealistic fear
142. You respond to a 27 y/o male complaining of sudden onset of stabbing
chest pain on inspiration. Vital signs are stable and the lung sounds
are clear and equal bilaterally. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Spontaneous pneumothorax
b. pleurisy
c. pneumonia
d. hemothorax
143. The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute is referred to
as:
a. cardiac output
b. stroke volume
c. PVR
d. afterload
144. Acetylcholine is usually associated with:
a. alpha sympathetic system
b. beta sympathetic system
c. parasympathetic system
d. adrenergic system
145. You respond to an elderly female found in the snow. The outside
temperature is -2 degrees Farenheight. The vital signs are depressed.
Important to know in treatment is:
a. support the patients BP
b. rewarm the patient quickly
c. apply hot packs in axilla and wrap in blankets
d. CPR may be ineffective until the patient is rewarmed
146. A patient is unconscious and you suspect a neck injury. Which
assessment is NOT done?
a. palpate the neck for deformities
b. observe respiratory effort
c. check for "dolls eyes" phenomenon
d. observe trachea for mid-line position
147. An abnormal, high pitched, musical inspiratory sound caused by
obstruction in the trachea or larynx is called:
a. stridor
b. rales
c. rhonchi
d. wheezing
148. The best definition of extrication from a vehicle?
a. dismemberment
b. disentanglement
c. removal
d. removification
149. How many milligrams of lidocaine are contained in 1 ml of a 2% soln.?
a. 2 mg
b. 20 mg
c. 200 mg
d. 20 gm
150. A patient who is suicidal usually:
a. does not transmit their intentions
b. tends to feel isolated
c. doesn't really mean it
d. is also homicidal
151. A patient who is listless, slovenly, unkempt, is most likely suffering
from:
a. paranoia
b. depression
c. mania
d. anorexia
152. For every unit of blood lost in trauma, how much crystalloid must be
infused?
a. twice as much
b. equal amount
c. three times the amount
d. half as much
153. A 30 y/o female is in a MVA and is complaining of chest pain, should
be treated as a patient with:
a. an MI
b. COPD
c. CVA
d. TIA
154. A patient complaining of chest pain who is showing multifocal PVCs on
the monitor should be treated with:
a. 1 mg/kg lidocaine bolus
b. 1 mg/kg bretylium bolus
c. 2-4 mcg/kg lidocaine infusion
155. Vasopressors may be indicated in which type of shock?
a. hypovolemic
b. neurogenic
c. respiratory
d. metabolic
156. Treatment of neurogenic shock should include:
a. oxygen, IV, PASG, consider vasopressors
b. oxygen, IV, aramine, Trendelenberg position
c. IV, aramine, lidocaine infusion
d. oxygen, IV, valium
157. A patient with a history of seizures is most likely to take which
medications:
a. dilantin and phenobarbitol
b. theo-dur and lanoxin
c. lasix and lanoxin
d. inderal and digitalis
158. A patient presents with vomiting, headache, and yellow vision. The
monitor shows rapid atrial fib with frequent PVCs. The patient states
that she takes a heart pill. She is most likely suffering from:
a. lidocaine toxicity
b. lasix overdose
c. lanoxin toxicity
d. influenza
159. The preferred site for intraosseous needle placement in the field is:
a. distal tibia
b. proximal tibia
c. distal femur
d. midshaft femur
160. The most common cause of airway obstruction in the unconscious
victim of an unwitnessed collapse is:
a. food
b. mucous
c. dentures
d. tongue
161. A pregnant patient suffering from edema, hypertension and increased
muscle tone is likely suffering from:
a. PMS
b. postural hypotension
c. preeclampsia
d. ecclampsia
162. The problem with communication of the elderly is most often due to:
a. hearing loss
b. confusion
c. senility
d. organic brain syndrome
163. The term that which describes normal respirations is:
a. orthopnea
b. dyspnea
c. eupnea
d. bradypnea
164. The rate of adult compressions in CPR is:
a. 80-100
b. 100 plus per minute
c. 15-1
d. 5-2
165. The death which occurs at the moment the heart stops is:
a. biological death
b. clinical death
c. irreversible death
d. DRT
166. The proper rate for rescue breathing for an adult is:
a. 5 breaths/minute
b. 8 breaths/minute
c. 12 breaths/minute
d. 20 breaths/minute
167. The rescuer's initial ventilation of a requiring CPR should be:
a. one quick breath
b. four quick breaths
c. two full breaths
d. five full breaths
168. Your 27 y/o female patient is complaining of vaginal discharge and
abdominal pain which increases with intercourse. The patient relates
that she may have been exposed to gonorrhea. The patient is most
likely suffering from:
a. uterine rupture
b. ectopic pregnancy
c. AIDS
d. PID
169. What is the name for alveolar collapse?
a. tension pneumothorax
b. pneumonia
c. atelectasis
d. pulmonary edema
170. A 31 y/o female is involved in a MVA. Vital signs are 90/68, 100, and
40. Trachea is deviated to the right, breath sounds are absent on the
left, hyperresonance is noted on the left side on percussion. What is
most likely the problem?
a. simple pneumothorax
b. hemothorax
c. pericardial tamponade
d. tension pneumothorax
171. The first priority in management an open pneumothorax is to:
a. deliver high flow O2
b. check both lung fields
c. insert an oral airway
d. cover and seal the wound
172. Uncompensated shock is evidenced by:
a. falling blood pressure
b. rising temperature
c. cold, clammy skin
d. rising pulse rate
173. In some people, congenitally weakened areas of the lungs may rupture
causing:
a. alveolar pneumonia
b. hemothorax
c. pulmonary edema
d. spontaneous pneumothorax
174. Which is the most important in evaluating a patient with an illness
causing abdominal pain?
a. appearance of the patient
b. patient history
c. palpitation
d. vital signs
175. Insulin is secreted by the:
a. adrenal glands
b. gall bladder
c. islets of Langerhans
d. superior testines
176. What is the primary drug given to correct ventricular fibrillation?
a. inderal
b. atropine
c. lidocaine
d. lasix
177. The usual dose of isuprell when given as a drip is:
a. 20 mg in 500 ml of D5W
b. 1 mg in 1000 ml of D5W
c. 0.2 mg in 500 ml of D5W
d. 2 mg in 500 ml D5W
178. The fluid portion of blood is the:
a. leukocyte
b. erythrocyte
c. plasma
d. albumin
179. Which of the following is a result of a serious insulin deficit?
a. respiratory alkalosis
b. metabolic acidosis
c. respiratory acidosis
d. metabolic acidosis
180. The purkinge system has an intrinsic firing rate of:
a. 10-20 min
b. 20-40 min
c. 40-60 min
d. 60-70 min
181. You have been ordered to give a patient 7 mcg/min of isuprell. Mix
1 mg in 250 ml of D5W and use a microdrip. What drip rate is needed?
a. 28 gtts/min
b. 90 gtts/min
c. 105 gtts/min
d. 210 gtts/min
182. The proper dose of pediatric epinephrine 1:1000 for an asthma attack
would be:
a. 10 mg/kg
b. 0.1 mg/kg
c. .01 mg/kg
d. .001 mg/kg
183. Stimulation of the beta receptors causes:
a. decreased cardiac oxygen consumption
b. increased heart rate and force of contraction
c. increased vascular resistance and vasoconstriction
d. bronchial constriction and tachycardia
184. You are attempting to intubate a pediatric patient. Your best guide in
choosing the correct size tube is:
a. the patient's general appearance
b. the patient's little finger
c. the patient's ring finger
d. the patient's weight
185. Which factor is common to all forms of shock?
a. hypovolemia
b. tachycardia
c. tachypnea
d. inadequate tissue perfusion
186. When a myocardial fiber is at rest the charge within the cell is:
a. polarized
b. negative
c. positive
d. depolarized
187. A hypotonic solution is defined as a solution having:
a. a concentration the same as that in the cells
b. a concentration higher than that in the cells
c. a concentration lower than that in the cells
d. none of the above adequately defines the term
188. Which of the following is primarily an extracellular electrolyte?
a. potassium
b. calcium
c. sodium
d. nitrogen
189. Injuries that result in partial tearing of a ligament are called:
a. dislocations
b. sprains
c. strains
d. fractures
190. In a posterior dislocation of the hip, the leg will appear:
a. shortened and rotated inward
b. lengthened and rotated outward
c. flexed to about 90 degrees
d. abducted and slightly flexed
191. Lactated Ringer's solution is a(n):
a. isotonic solution
b. hypotonic solution
c. hypertonic solution
d. isotonic balanced buffered electrolyte solution
192. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is usually caused by:
a. overheating the infant
b. underfeeding the infant
c. suffocation
d. the cause is unknown
193. The most common cause of seizures in the child is:
a. ventricular fibrillation
b. elevated temperature
c. bronchitis
d. inadequate tissue perfusion
194. What is the first step in the secondary survey?
a. check for hemorrhage
b. head to toe survey
c. obtain a set of vital signs
d. check for open fractures
195. Your patient is unconscious and in apparent respiratory distress.
The permission to treat her is given by the concept of:
a. applied consent
b. implied consent
c. replied consent
d. actual consent
196. 23 y/o Tim has a history of seizures. You find him having recurrent
seizures without return to consciousness. His color is poor and he is
suffering arrythmias. Tim is suffering from:
a. petit mal seizures
b. focal motor seizures
c. marital distress
d. status epilepticus
197. Which of the following is one of the earliest signs of hypoxia:
a. cyanosis
b. thirst
c. restlessness
d. weak and rapid pulse
198. Your patient is a conscious and rational adult. Failure to get consent
to treat and transport could lead to what type of liability?
a. assault
b. battery
c. false imprisonment
d. all of the above
199. Aminophyline may be given in a dosage range of ____ and it's main
action is_______?
a. 250-500 mg rapidly; bronchial dilation
b. 250-500 mg slowly; bronchial dilation
c. 300 mg slowly; increased cardiac output
d. 500 mg rapidly; decreased urinary output
200. What is the most common adverse side effect of IV push valium?
a. hypertension
b. seizures
c. respiratory depression
d. divorce
201. Which structure is located in the mediastinum?
a. alveoli
b. bronchiols
c. trachea
d. all of the above
202. The following are all potential hazards to endotrachial intubation
EXCEPT:
a. damage to the teeth
b. regurgitation
c. intubation of the right mainstem bronchus
d. heart damage from rapidly increased oxygen
203. Which of the following is given in a weight related dose?
a. verapamil
b. dopamine
c. epinephrine
d. levophed
204. Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
a. verapmil
b. isoptin
c. Calan
d. all of the above
205. What drug is an antianginal, calcium blocker, antiarrythmic, and
vasodilator?
a. nitroglycerin
b. verapamil
c. nipride
d. atropine
206. Chronotropic means:
a. time related
b. electrolytic
c. force related
d. nothing
207. A woman is found lying in the street. When you ask her name, she
moans incoherently. You report her level of consciousness as:
a. unconscious
b. semi-conscious
c. stuporous
d. conscious and disoriented
208. Which is the best way to lower a patient?
a. vertical
b. horizontal
c. inverted
d. it doesn't matter
209. What response is seen with Cushings syndrome?
a. excess production of ACTH
b. decreased production of cortizone
c. decreased production of ACTH
d. excess production of oxytocin
210. A 90 y/o is at home, conscious, alert and well oriented. His family
thinks he should be seen at the hospital for a liver problem. The man
refuses to be transported. Who has the right to make the patient go to
the hospital?
a. the patient's family
b. the patient's doctor
c. a judge
d. the EMS crew
211. A young Woman is complaining of sudden onset of right sided abdominal
pain. She admits to being sexually active and states she missed her
last period. What do you suspect is the patient likely diagnosis?
a. mittleschmertz
b. PID
c. endometriosis
d. ectopic pregnancy
212. What does the T wave represent on the ECG?
a. atrial depolarization
b. ventricular depolarization
c. atrial repolarization
d. ventricular repolarization
213. Which of the following is an ectopic rhythm?
a. atrial tachycardia
b. sinus tachycardia
c. bradycardia
d. first degree AV block
214. The correct dose of epinephrine to administer through the ET tube is:
a. 5 mls of a 1:10,000 solution
b. 5 mls of a 1:1000 solution
c. 10 mls of a 1:10,000 solution
d. 10 mls of a 1:1000 solution
215. Why does a person with diabetic ketoacidosis have Kussmall breathing?
a. to blow off paCO2
b. to retain paCO2
c. to blow off excess paO2
d. to retain paO2
216. An EKG showing Torsades de Pointes is a sign of:
a. narcotic overdose
b. tricyclic overdose
c. antidepressant overdose
d. organophosphate poisoning
217. You respond to a call from a woman whose husband may be having a heart
attack. Upon arrival vital signs are normal and the patient refuses
transport. The wife insists that you take him to the hospital so he
doesn't die at home. You should:
a. transport on the advise of the patient's wife
b. call the police to arrest the patient then transport him
c. have wife sign an authorization for you to transport the patient
d. have the patient sign a refusal of care and transportation
form